The possibility that the "gay voice" comes from imitating people (in this case, women) you trust is really interesting. It seems to make a lot of sense... I'd really like to see a study on the matter. Would a gay man who does not have the "gay voice" be a man without women in his life who he can trust?
Yeah, I guess it does seem to make sense, but in my opinion the stereotypical "gay male" voice doesn't sound like a woman's voice. It has it's own quality.
I agree, the majority of women I know speak with an effeminate tone, but it isn't quite the same as the stereotypical "gay voice" that's described in the article. "Flamboyant" is a word often associated with this stereotype. I feel like it may just be the exaggeration of these effeminate qualities (mixed with the male biology) that make it sound so unique.