So because Trump has set a precedent of acting without Congressional approval, and because his order was delayed, and (let's assume) it's unlikely the operation can accomplish its publicly stated mission, then it must be that Trump convinced May and Macron to fire a combined 100 missiles at Syria in order to control the American news cycle? kb, you're losing me here.. I'd be slightly more comfortable with people running wild with the threat-to-action delay than this claim that sounds, at the moment, like a rather lazy conspiracy theory. edit: I didn't consider that GB and FR had their own valid reasons to strike. Getting them involved, while I can submit that it might have been very easy, is still not relevant to the central claim. edit2: Just clarifying, I understand how an international missile strike can bury unwanted news. I'm rejecting the claim that this was why he did it.